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Fri Jun 18, 2004, 11:18pm
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It seems to me that if the ball goes through a fielder's legs and hits a runner, the runner has not interfered as defined in 7.08(f).
He is touched by a fair ball in fair territory before the ball has touched or passed an infielder. (emphasis added). So a ball hitting a player immediately behind a fielder has already passed the fielder. 
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