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Tue Jun 08, 2004, 03:14pm
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QUOTE: "Righthanded F1 has toed the rubber in the stretch, with out stepping or anything he faints a throw to third without the ball in his throwing hand (it is in his glove) plate guy calls a balk stating that he deliberately decieved the runner by the fainted attempt. is this correct?"
---- yes ---- quote: -------------------------------------------------------------------------------- Originally posted by jumpmaster an arguement could be made that this is a balk b/c OBR 8.05c. F1 failed to step directly towards the base. He threw to F4. F4 is not at 2nd Base. -------------------------------------------------------------------------------- You could make that arguement, but it's not the "correct" interpretation. --- what is the correct interpretation? Source, please.
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Alan Roper Stand your ground. Don't fire unless fired upon, but if they mean to have a war, let it begin here - CPT John Parker, April 19, 1775, Lexington, Mass 
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