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Old Thu Apr 29, 2004, 01:13pm
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Join Date: Apr 2004
Location: Tustin, Michigan
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"FED: Any feint by the runner allows F1 to throw to the next base in an attempt to retire said runner. This has been interpreted to mean that even a jab step or a head movement allows the throw."

This sounds like a FED "Softball" interpretaion, not baseball. Would not then a simple leadoff from second be enough for the pitcher to throw to third?

The basic question was though, is throwing to a fielder,not playing at a base and thus not directly toward a base, enough to be considered "throwing directly to a base" as stated in FED rules?
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