"FED: Any feint by the runner allows F1 to throw to the next base in an attempt to retire said runner. This has been interpreted to mean that even a jab step or a head movement allows the throw."
This sounds like a FED "Softball" interpretaion, not baseball. Would not then a simple leadoff from second be enough for the pitcher to throw to third?
The basic question was though, is throwing to a fielder,not playing at a base and thus not directly toward a base, enough to be considered "throwing directly to a base" as stated in FED rules?
|