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Old Tue Mar 07, 2017, 02:03pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Jimmie24 View Post
It's a foul ball. 5-1-1 and 8-1-1 will help you with this. Is it an online test? The online test usually gives you the rules reference of the ones that you missed.
Whoa, whoa, whoa there.....before we make such a declaration, think about what he said. He said it hit his HANDS. A foul ball is a batted ball that is in foul territory or becomes dead in it (simplified definition). Is that what we have here?

To the OP....consider the definition and requirements of a bat. Do you see any specifications of the hands there? The hands are part of the arm, not the bat.

The answer - if you say it hit his hands first - is C. Everything after the hitting of the hands is irrelevant - getting hit by pitch is ALWAYS an immediate dead ball. You may not send him to first if you think he actively permitted the ball to hit him - but that's a different question.
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Old Tue Mar 07, 2017, 02:09pm
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O.

M.

G.

1) Any prospective umpire who thinks the hands are part of the bat should be disqualified from taking the rest of the test.

2) Foul ball? That's worse.
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Old Tue Mar 07, 2017, 02:56pm
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Answer GIven

Apologies for my ignorance. Apparently it is a common misconception that the hands are part of the bat, when in fact they are not. This OP would be to award the hitter 1B just as if it had struck any other part of his body. On the flip side, if the batter had swung at the pitch, and the ball had struck his hands, the call would be a STRIKE and not a foul, just as if the ball had struck any other part of his body during a legal swing.
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Old Tue Mar 07, 2017, 03:08pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by BSBAL18 View Post
Apologies for my ignorance. Apparently it is a common misconception that the hands are part of the bat, when in fact they are not. This OP would be to award the hitter 1B just as if it had struck any other part of his body. On the flip side, if the batter had swung at the pitch, and the ball had struck his hands, the call would be a STRIKE and not a foul, just as if the ball had struck any other part of his body during a legal swing.
Correct.

And, one of the goals of these tests is to learn something, so you accomplished that.
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Old Tue Mar 07, 2017, 03:26pm
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I do apologize if I was overly harsh. It's just that this one particular rule is the measuring stick by which we immediately know if a coach (or screaming parent, or sometimes player) is completely unaware of the entire rulebook. If you took ANY class before taking your test (and I hope they make you do that in your area ... although I'm aware that they don't everywhere), then your clinician should have made this rule crystal clear. If they did not, shame on them --- not you.

And as Bob said ... if you learned something today or from the test, then that's great.
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Old Tue Mar 14, 2017, 12:01pm
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Let's look at the main puzzle piece of the initial post...

Inside fastball which I take to mean coming at the batter. In my mind the batter pulls back and the ball strikes his person. I really can care less that the ball hit his hands unless he was swinging at the pitch. Change the body part to the ball hit his ribs, does that change your thought on ball/strike/fair/foul?

In the question there is no mention of a swing so all I have here is a hit batter.

Time.
You first base.
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Old Tue Mar 14, 2017, 03:06pm
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without sounding like a smart a$$. ask yourself this question,

Did he come out of the womb with the bat in his hands?

Or even this. If he lets the bat drop from his hands does it stay in his hands or drop to the ground?
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