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Can I summarize as follows:
1. In the OP, we judge R3 not to have intended to break up a double play, but he's hit by a fair ball. RULING: INT, dead ball, R3 out, award BR 1B, other runners advance only if forced.
2. If we judge R3 to have interfered to break up a double play; RULING: INT, dead ball, R3 out, and the next most advanced runner is out. If BR is not out on the play, award BR 1B, other runners advance only if forced. [I think this is different in FED, where R3 and BR would be out]
3. As I understand pro interps, R3 is out even if F5 is playing in and no other infielder has a play on the ball unless he's directly behind the fielder. The rationale for this interp is that the defense has a right to field a batted ball unhindered, whether that happens in the infield or outfield. Runners are given enough protection by the exception for being immediately behind a fielder.
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Cheers,
mb
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