three foot running lane

[fastpitch1]

If the base runner is running to first base,say,after a bunt ,does the thrown ball have to hit her if she is running in fair territory for her to be called out?Lets go with NFHS rule.

[MNBlue]

Originally Posted by fastpitch1

If the base runner is running to first base,say,after a bunt ,does the thrown ball have to hit her if she is running in fair territory for her to be called out?Lets go with NFHS rule.

How has the runner interfered?

[fastpitch1]

For arguments sake,she has not interferred,the throw sails over the first basemans head.Batter is running in fair territory .

[RKBUmp]

If the catcher or other defensive player threw the ball into right field how is that the batter/runners fault?

[MNBlue]

Exactly. Why are we penalizing the runner because the defense can't throw the ball 60 feet?

[CecilOne]

If the BR outside the running lane interfered with the fielder covering 1st and that prevented an out; then it does not matter if the ball ends up in RF, fielder's hand, runner's back, foul ground, stands, dugout, on the infield, or wherever; it is interference.

Ignoring for the moment which rules about which foot, which part of the runner is hit, etc.

[MD Longhorn]

Not sure if Cecil is agreeing or disagreeing...

If the runner did not interfere, she did not interfere. Hard to interfere with a throw that is over everyone's head.

[CecilOne]

Originally Posted by MD Longhorn

Not sure if Cecil is agreeing or disagreeing...

Aaahhh, the secret of good discussion

Originally Posted by MD Longhorn

Not sure if Cecil is agreeing or disagreeing...

If the runner did not interfere, she did not interfere. Hard to interfere with a throw that is over everyone's head.

Agreeing with no INT if the throw was uncatchable anyway.

The OPQ was "does the thrown ball have to hit her ". My comment pointed out that interference would be preventing the fielder from getting the out; even if the ball does not hit the runner.

[nopachunts]

An easy way for me:
Would the fielder had made the catch if the runner was not there?

Go from there.

[Manny A]

Just to add, it's likely a sure bet that there was a runner's lane violation if the thrown ball hit the batter-runner. Where it gets dicier is when the throw doesn't hit her, and the fielder at first base fails to make the play. That's when you have to judge if the reason the fielder muffed it is because the batter-runner kept the fielder from seeing the ball, caused the fielder to hesitate or flinch, etc.

A bad throw will likely not result in a three-foot-lane-violation call, unless you judge the fielder still could have caught it (e.g., a throw in the dirt) if not for the batter-runner's position outside the lane.

[fastpitch1]

Ah,there in lies the hidden question i want to ask,outside the lane,can the firstbaseman make the play if the runner is outside the lane ,if in my judgement she could have ,would you agree with the running lane violation call ?

[Manny A]

I thought that was pretty much answered by folks here.

If you judge the first baseman should have made the play, then there is no violation. But the first baseman must be given the LARGEST benefit of the doubt. The onus is on the batter-runner to prove she didn't affect the play at first by being out of the lane, not on the fielder to prove she had a slim possibility of making the play and missed it. Don't reward the batter-runner for being where she isn't supposed to be but maybe the first baseman should not have let it affect her.

[IRISHMAFIA]

Originally Posted by fastpitch1

Ah,there in lies the hidden question i want to ask,outside the lane,can the firstbaseman make the play if the runner is outside the lane ,if in my judgement she could have ,would you agree with the running lane violation call ?

A BATTER-RUNNER (like a runner) may run anywhere in the field of play. The only thing the 3' lane provides is a "safe zone" that allows them to advance without being ruled out for INT for affecting a defender attempting to receive the ball @ 1st base (sans intent).