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Rule question
ASA, NCAA, FED (specify if you believe it differs).
No outs, runner on third. Deep drive to the fence. In your judgement, this is a prototypical sacrifice fly if it doesn't go over, runner will score if it's caught. A spectator reaches over the fence and prevents the outfielder from catching the ball. Ruling?
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I was thinking of the immortal words of Socrates, who said, 'I drank what?'” West Houston Mike |
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I assume your judgment is a catch if no spec. int.
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Officiating takes more than OJT. It's not our jobs to invent rulings to fit our personal idea of what should and should not be. Last edited by CecilOne; Tue Jul 23, 2013 at 03:44pm. |
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Yes, in the umpire's judgement, the ball would have been caught and the runner would have made it home.
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I was thinking of the immortal words of Socrates, who said, 'I drank what?'” West Houston Mike |
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As written in your sitch, I suppose a case could be made that both the offensive team and defensive team were "offended." However, as written, the rule doesn't seem to support allowing the runner on 3rd to score. |
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It is the NCAA wording that is causing a bit of a stir on another site. Scoring the run is, of course, the correct ruling.
One otherwise solid umpire is using that 1-2-3 bit and the fact that offended team is singular to state that if you rule an out, you can't score the runner. My contention is that if this ruling (Dead ball, BR out, nothing else) was what the rulesmakers wanted, part 3 would not be there at all... it would simply be (1) Dead ball and (2) BR out. Part 3 is there because they DO want us to alleviate ANYONE who was damaged (offended? Odd word there) by the ball suddenly being ruled dead due to the INT.
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I was thinking of the immortal words of Socrates, who said, 'I drank what?'” West Houston Mike |
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However, absent an interp. from DA or change in the wording of 4.9 in the 2014-15 Rule Book, like the the umpire on the other site, (for now) I'm staying with the "1-2-3 bit." |
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I'm completely failing to understand why one would only call dead ball (1), rule the batter out (2), and then not proceed to 3 and award the runner home.
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I was thinking of the immortal words of Socrates, who said, 'I drank what?'” West Houston Mike |
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Officiating takes more than OJT. It's not our jobs to invent rulings to fit our personal idea of what should and should not be. |
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Because, as I said in my previous post, I can't find definitive rule support in the book or in any of Dee's interpretations.
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Because an absolute literal reading of the rule and effect only appear to allow there to be a correction/award to the offended team (defensive), not to correct the obvious jeopardy resulting to BOTH teams.
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Steve ASA/ISF/NCAA/NFHS/PGF |
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1 - ball is dead. 2 - batter-runner is out. Now we're at 3, with a runner on third that in our own judgement would have scored had there been no interference. There is only one remaining "offended" (Yes, I hate that word here) party; only one remaining player on the field that was hurt by the ball being declared dead. That would be the runner at 3rd. The first half of the rule states what to do when the ball is interfered with by a spectator but not caught. It says to place runners where they would have gotten to without the interference. The second half of the rule is not to contradict that, but rather to give us solid rule support to rule an out on the batter-runner, and still allow us to clear the rest of the damage.
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I was thinking of the immortal words of Socrates, who said, 'I drank what?'” West Houston Mike |
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I'll ask here what I asked there... if the intent of the rule was to ONLY kill the ball and rule the batter out ... what's the purpose of the 3rd part? There would be no need at all to write in the 3rd part... the rule would simply state to kill the ball and rule the batter-runner out.
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I was thinking of the immortal words of Socrates, who said, 'I drank what?'” West Houston Mike |
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Step 3 could include ruling that the defense was deprived of an obvious double play; or that (on an uncatchable ball) the offense was deprived of an obvious triple or home run. It still only states "team", not "teams" or "team(s)" I don't disagree with your desire to make it all right; but, again, the rule says exactly what it says, not what we want it to mean.
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Steve ASA/ISF/NCAA/NFHS/PGF |
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Actually, while I BELIEVE "offended team" should be plural - although the only case where I can see that happening is Runners on 1st and 3rd, oblivious R2 assuming the ball won't be caught, R1 tagging - offense offended by R1 not being allowed to score, defense offended by being deprived of a chance at getting R2 out at first for leaving.
But that aside, and even taking it literally - if "offended team" could only mean defense --- surely they would have simply typed "the defense". "The offended team" seems to purposely be used so it could apply to either team - whichever might be offended.
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I was thinking of the immortal words of Socrates, who said, 'I drank what?'” West Houston Mike |
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