Rule question

[AtlUmpSteve]

Originally Posted by MD Longhorn

Why is the assumption that the only offended team can be the defense? Especially since their issues were cleaned up by 1 and 2.

I'll ask here what I asked there... if the intent of the rule was to ONLY kill the ball and rule the batter out ... what's the purpose of the 3rd part? There would be no need at all to write in the 3rd part... the rule would simply state to kill the ball and rule the batter-runner out.

You are adding the logic that both teams can be offended, buy the rule only states "offended team", with no apparent allowance for there to be two. Only one team was absolutely deprived of the opportunity to make the catch; and DA interpreting for the NCAA is as literal a wordsmith as there is anywhere.

Step 3 could include ruling that the defense was deprived of an obvious double play; or that (on an uncatchable ball) the offense was deprived of an obvious triple or home run. It still only states "team", not "teams" or "team(s)"

I don't disagree with your desire to make it all right; but, again, the rule says exactly what it says, not what we want it to mean.