OBS past base - TCOW
 

Sorry, another OBS play :eek::

Short grounder to F3, F4 tries to cover 1st, ends up a few inches behind base, foul side, directly in BR path.
Meanwhile, F3 fields, keeps ball and backs toward base, leaving no inside room for BR.
F4 clearly in the way of BR, never having ball.

True or false?
As long as BR slows, “pulls up” slightly, or hesitates; even if no turn; OBS is the call; even though F4 is slightly past base.


ASA rules priority, but any other you think is different.

This topic will not be helped by HTBT responses. :rolleyes:

Please do not use it to chide or demean each other. :(

Trying to avoid saying HTBT, but there are considerations here that make that hard to dismiss. There's no "always right" answer to your question without seeing the actual play.

First let me say that it is COMPLETELY reasonable that, especially at first base or the plate (where running straight through is a normal option), you can have obstruction on a fielder located behind the base.

Second, however, if you have F3 WITH the ball partially blocking BR's path, you'd better be 100% sure it was F4, and not F3 that caused any slowing or deviation on BR's part. If F3 is the reason for BR slowing or altering, you don't have OBS. If F4 is the reason, you do.

I hope that answers the question.

I was thinking along these same lines when I read the scenario.

With F3 having the ball and trying to make a play in the immediate vicinity, an OBS call on F4 would be a tough sell.

Yes, I think it does, and F4 was clearly the problem for the BR.

Where was F3 in relation to the BR? In front of, behind, next to?

Where was the BR when s/he began to check up? How far from 1B?

Was F4 in foul territory? The reason I ask is because you said it is ASA, which requires a double first base. I am trying to picture why the BR would be obstructed if she was running to the colored base and F4 was behind the white base.

Didn't see a reference to the white portion, but there is no rule forbidding the BR from touching the white portion of the base, or running in fair territory.

Yes, F4 was in foul territory.

(1) At the time of the OBS, a few feet inside foul line, a step or so closer to HP than BR; touched a foot to base as BR passed.

(2) 1 or 2 steps, foot coming down on the step before the one that reached the base.

How can F3 be a step or so farther away from 1st, but touch a foot to the base as the BR passed?

Easily - because BR slowed down due to the OBS by F4, and F3 caught up with BR right at (and slightly before they touched) first base.

OP stated F3 fielded the ball and BACKS toward the base. And would still like to know where it happened. That does make a difference.

What MD said is logical, but not entirely the case.
I guess I didn't remember the "a step or so closer to HP than BR" part correctly. F3 must have been slightly ahead of the BR.

Are you trying to figure out if the delay of the BR was caused by F3 with the ball; pretty sure it was not because F3 was inside the line and the BR and F4 were on foul side.

Anyway, my main question is confirming that a fielder can obstruct even if past the base the R/BR is running to.

The simple answer to just that is absolutely.

How many times have you seen the runner have contact with F3 just past 1B or F6 just past 2B?