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Old Thu Apr 11, 2013, 03:36pm
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Rule Trivia

R1 on first, no outs. Batter hits to left field. R1 rounds second large, but decides not to go. BR doesn't see R1 return and is also heading for 2nd.

R1 is obstructed by the SS returning to the base. Throw comes into 2nd base ahead of R1 (or R2 for that matter), R1 takes 3 steps toward 3rd, ball is thrown to F5. As the ball is thrown, BR continues to 2nd base. R1 returns toward 2nd, BR stays there. F5 throws to F4 as R1 slides in safely. F4 then tags BR.

Ruling?
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Old Thu Apr 11, 2013, 03:41pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by MD Longhorn View Post
R1 on first, no outs. Batter hits to left field. R1 rounds second large, but decides not to go. BR doesn't see R1 return and is also heading for 2nd.

R1 is obstructed by the SS returning to the base. Throw comes into 2nd base ahead of R1 (or R2 for that matter), R1 takes 3 steps toward 3rd, ball is thrown to F5. As the ball is thrown, BR continues to 2nd base. R1 returns toward 2nd, BR stays there. F5 throws to F4 as R1 slides in safely. F4 then tags BR.

Ruling?
BR is out, R1 was entitled to the base. R1 is at risk to be put out between the bases obstructed (if she leaves second) as there has been a play on another runner and she reached the base she would have reached if not for the obstruction.
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Old Fri Apr 12, 2013, 08:04am
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So ... just one opinion here so far? Really?
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Old Fri Apr 12, 2013, 08:07am
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Well

Once an obstructed runner is played on by the defense the ball becomes dead. At that point you then award bases. The way I read the OP R1 was played on sliding back in to 2B before a play was made on BR. At that point, the ball becomse dead.
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Old Fri Apr 12, 2013, 08:23am
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Quote:
Originally Posted by DeputyUICHousto View Post
Once an obstructed runner is played on by the defense the ball becomes dead. At that point you then award bases. The way I read the OP R1 was played on sliding back in to 2B before a play was made on BR. At that point, the ball becomse dead.
I thought it was retired.
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Old Fri Apr 12, 2013, 09:40am
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Originally Posted by tcannizzo View Post
I thought it was retired.
It is.
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Old Fri Apr 12, 2013, 08:26am
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Ball isnt dead unless the obstructed runner is put out prior to reaching the base they would have reached absent the obstruction. A play was made on the obstructed runner, but she was safe diving back into 2nd. BR was then tagged while also on 2nd. I also have the BR out, based on the description in the OP the runner was obstructed returning to 2nd and she was safe, no dead ball, no base awards.
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Old Fri Apr 12, 2013, 08:21am
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Quote:
Originally Posted by MD Longhorn View Post
R1 on first, no outs. Batter hits to left field. R1 rounds second large, but decides not to go. BR doesn't see R1 return and is also heading for 2nd.

R1 is obstructed by the SS returning to the base. Throw comes into 2nd base ahead of R1 (or R2 for that matter), R1 takes 3 steps toward 3rd, ball is thrown to F5. As the ball is thrown, BR continues to 2nd base. R1 returns toward 2nd, BR stays there. F5 throws to F4 as R1 slides in safely. F4 then tags BR.

Ruling?
I get the sense that you are posing a conundrum about who is entitled to the base. Should be first to acquire and not forced. So,
a.) did R1 "acquire" 2B by rounding and returning?
b.) Or does BR "acquire" by being already on the base when R1 returns?

I go with "a" and the previous posts, BR is OUT.
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Old Fri Apr 12, 2013, 08:47pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by MD Longhorn View Post
R1 on first, no outs. Batter hits to left field. R1 rounds second large, but decides not to go. BR doesn't see R1 return and is also heading for 2nd.

R1 is obstructed by the SS returning to the base. Throw comes into 2nd base ahead of R1 (or R2 for that matter), R1 takes 3 steps toward 3rd, ball is thrown to F5. As the ball is thrown, BR continues to 2nd base. R1 returns toward 2nd, BR stays there. F5 throws to F4 as R1 slides in safely. F4 then tags BR.

Ruling?
IMO, people are overthinking this. This is a no brainer.

R1 ELECTED not to advance toward 3B and was not obstructed attempting to advance toward 3B. Awarding R1 anything other than 2B is not justified. Really don't care how many steps she takes toward anywhere, R1 owns 2B.

R1 was not put out, so there is no reason to kill the ball until all other play is complete
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