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Old Tue Apr 15, 2003, 11:57am
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Agreed, there is no indication the trailing runner from 2nd was affected by the obstruction.

Mike,
In your comment:
"If obstructed runner is tagged first, the play is dead, the umpire places the obstructed runner on the base they believe would have been attained had obstruction not occurred. In this case, I believe the trailing runner would be returned to 2B";
why is the play dead rather than delayed dead, as the trailing runner is still not safe?
Isn't the rule that when two runners are on the same base, the lead runner "owns" it and the trailing runner has no right to it unless forced (not mentioned in this play)?
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