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Old Sat Mar 15, 2003, 08:26pm
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Join Date: Mar 2003
Posts: 13
Steve M is right on. I do not have any interference as the runner did not intentionally interfere with the play. The real question exists if the fielder threw the ball and hit the retired runner. Even though the runner could be hit, if the runner did not intentionally make contact with the ball, no interference. Now, judgement comes into play big time...is it judged to be intentional if the retired runner just stands there and makes no attempt to get out of the way. I think it could be. You really need to be there on a play like this to make the determination.

Bob 13
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