Obstruction question

[Dakota]

Originally Posted by DaveASA/FED

...And I would bet money will be next year!!

I might take that bet... it's been in there for years now, and this is not the first time the inconsistency has been noted! But, then, if all of the ambiguities, inconsistencies, poor grammar, and fractured syntax were removed from the ASA book, we wouldn't recognized it!

[NCASAUmp]

Originally Posted by Dakota

I might take that bet... it's been in there for years now, and this is not the first time the inconsistency has been noted! But, then, if all of the ambiguities, inconsistencies, poor grammar, and fractured syntax were removed from the ASA book, we wouldn't recognized it!

In 2009, ASA changed rule 3-1 with regards to non-approved bats. They didn't change the Rule 1 definition of a non-approved bat to reflect what was said in 3-1 until 2011.

It happens. There are so many cross-references, it's easy to miss something in editing. I suspect that's what happened here.

[MD Longhorn]

I don't understand the ambiguity - the rule clearly states that if a baserunner is attempting to field a batted ball or catch a thrown ball they cannot be guilty of obstruction. Given that I've never seen that and likely won't, I think I can safely ignore 4b entirely.

[IRISHMAFIA]

Originally Posted by Dakota

I might take that bet... it's been in there for years now, and this is not the first time the inconsistency has been noted! But, then, if all of the ambiguities, inconsistencies, poor grammar, and fractured syntax were removed from the ASA book, we wouldn't recognized it!

I have a feeling Dave is dealing with "insider information" on this one and that is good. This portion of the rule will receive attention and probably be rectified. We may even see a clarification before the summer is out.

[Tru_in_Blu]

Many times at lower levels, and some at higher levels, F3 stands on 1B when a ball has clearly made it to the outfield. The runner, as taught, wants to hit the inside corner of 1B on the way to 2B. Because F3 is standing there, runner usually diverts around and actually has to use the safety base on her way to 2B.

So we have OBS. But it seems as though it happened before the runner ever touched 1B. We call OBS on F3. Between which two bases is the runner protected?

[IRISHMAFIA]

Originally Posted by Tru_in_Blu

Many times at lower levels, and some at higher levels, F3 stands on 1B when a ball has clearly made it to the outfield. The runner, as taught, wants to hit the inside corner of 1B on the way to 2B. Because F3 is standing there, runner usually diverts around and actually has to use the safety base on her way to 2B.

So we have OBS. But it seems as though it happened before the runner ever touched 1B. We call OBS on F3. Between which two bases is the runner protected?

Was the runner still on an OBS path after touching 1B?

IMJ, the runner is protected between 1st & 2nd.

[DaveASA/FED]

obstructed before, during and after she's at first I agree with Irish if she is still recovering from the obstruction after touching first she was also obstructed after being at first so she has protection between 1st and 2nd.

[MD Longhorn]

Originally Posted by Tru_in_Blu

Many times at lower levels, and some at higher levels, F3 stands on 1B when a ball has clearly made it to the outfield. The runner, as taught, wants to hit the inside corner of 1B on the way to 2B. Because F3 is standing there, runner usually diverts around and actually has to use the safety base on her way to 2B.

So we have OBS. But it seems as though it happened before the runner ever touched 1B. We call OBS on F3. Between which two bases is the runner protected?

Honestly, if obstruction happens because of a fielder ON a base, I'm protecting her on both sides of the bag. (If this same scenario happened at third, she can't be out between 2nd and 3rd because she was obstructed while she was between 2nd and 3rd. She's still being obstructed after passing third, so she can't be out between 3rd and home either.

Granted ... it's the rare scenario indeed where she would need that protection behind the base (bet 2 and 3 in this case) but I believe she has it if she needs it.

[robbie]

In NSA, if the obstruction is on BR before BR reaches first base, its a dead ball.

Other rule sete?

[JefferMC]

Originally Posted by robbie

In NSA, if the obstruction is on BR before BR reaches first base, its a dead ball.

Other rule sete?

I did not know that. Learn something new every day. I don't think it's in any other rule set.

[MD Longhorn]

Originally Posted by robbie

In NSA, if the obstruction is on BR before BR reaches first base, its a dead ball.

Other rule sete?

I don't work NSA or keep up with their rules, so I will take you at your word. I do wonder, however, why in the world there would be such a rule.

[robbie]

Originally Posted by mbcrowder

I don't work NSA or keep up with their rules, so I will take you at your word. I do wonder, however, why in the world there would be such a rule.

Funny, I always thought it was a very strange ruling, but didn't know that it was unique to NSA. What make it more interesting, is that NSA's flaw is that they are usually "silent" on many situations and rare occurances, so to actually spell this out must have a story behind it.

FYI:
RULE 8, Sec. 5, b. Effect:1. "If a play is being made on the obstructed runner or if the batter-runner is obstructed before reaching 1st base, the ball is dead...."

Another interesting note is that it states ""If a play is being made on the obstructed runner...the ball is dead..." It does NOT say that the play must be AT THE TIME of the obstruction. In other words, as written, if a runner is obstructed say between 1st and 2nd and later D throws to 3B to attempt to retire that runner, you have a dead ball when the play is made.