Brain Teaser question

[David Emerling]

Originally Posted by IRISHMAFIA

No, it is not. Could it be worded better? Maybe, but I think it is clear enough. To me, actually quite simple if you read the full sentence.

It is a true statement. The pitcher is not REQUIRED to pitch until the first batter COMPLETES their time at bat or the side has been retired.

This is what makes good umpires mediocre as it pertains to the rules. Somebody trying to "out think" the rules often results in an umpire questioning themselves on the field and that isn't a good place for that to happen.

Of course, this is JMHO

OK, then let's walk through this:

While an inning is progress and a new batter is coming to the plate, the defense requests time to change pitchers. Let's call the original pitcher, Pitcher A, and the reliever is Pitcher B. Any subsequent reliever would be Pitcher C.

Scenario #1: Pitcher B takes her warm-up tosses and the coach changes his mind. On second thought, he doesn't want Pitcher B to pitch. Her warm-up tosses looked terrible. She's not injured or anything. He just wants to bring Pitcher A back in. Or maybe Pitcher C.

Can he do that?

Scenario #2: Pitcher B is now pitching to the next batter. The first two pitches are in the dirt. The coach is not impressed. He wants to substitute and have Pitcher C finish pitching to the current batter.

Can he do that?

Scenario #3: Pitcher B walks the first batter she faces. The coach wants to change pitchers. According the rule "The pitcher is not required to pitch until the first batter faced completes their time at bat..." OK, now that first batter has completed their time at bat - she walked. Does that mean that Pitcher B is now required to pitch? I mean, isn't that what the rule says?

To say the rule could be worded better is a gross understatement. It is horribly worded! The mere fact that we're even talking about, what should be, an elementary substitution rule speaks volumes.

David Emerling
Memphis, TN