Infield Fly question

[bellnier]

I remember this discussion several times when I was coaching my DD who was (and still is) exceptionally quick to the ball...but I don't remember the answer: is the "routineness" of the catch by the infielder judged by some "standard infielder" we have embedded in our minds or by the skill level demonstrated by the particular infielder in that particular situation?

[NCASAUmp]

Originally Posted by bellnier

I remember this discussion several times when I was coaching my DD who was (and still is) exceptionally quick to the ball...but I don't remember the answer: is the "routineness" of the catch by the infielder judged by some "standard infielder" we have embedded in our minds or by the skill level demonstrated by the particular infielder in that particular situation?

I think it's a little of both, but more heavily upon the latter than the former. If I've got an infielder who simply can't move worth a crap, and they have to haul butt to get under the ball, then that's not "ordinary effort."

[JPRempe]

Originally Posted by NCASAUmp

I think it's a little of both, but more heavily upon the latter than the former. If I've got an infielder who simply can't move worth a crap, and they have to haul butt to get under the ball, then that's not "ordinary effort."

Well I guess we need to define "ordinary effort" further then.

My ordinary effort to get to a ball as a second baseman would be considered highlight reel to some others, but where do you draw the line? If it happens on the first defensive chance to that particular fielder that you've mentioned, there's no way to have your pre-conceived call on it.

What I'm really saying/asking is should there be a standard across the board definition of ordinary effort, or should there be a case by case definition, or a combination of both? Personally, I employ a combination of "both".

If someone has the chance to make a defensive play on an IFF call that I've never seen make a fielding effort (and the overall play looks to be routine), then IFF should be called. If the fielder moves like a one legged man in an arse kicking contest in the middle of a minefield, then I'll adjust my mindset and apply the new formula to the equation...

[greymule]

OK, justcallmeblue, now what should the call be if after the IFR is invoked, the fielder intentionally drops the fly ball and thus decoys the runners into attempting to advance, and one of them is put out?

[NCASAUmp]

Originally Posted by greymule

OK, justcallmeblue, now what should the call be if after the IFR is invoked, the fielder intentionally drops the fly ball and thus decoys the runners into attempting to advance, and one of them is put out?

Ooh! Ooh! Pick me! Pick me!

[Julio Caliente]

Originally Posted by NCASAUmp

Ooh! Ooh! Pick me! Pick me!

NO!!!!!!!!!

Pick me!!!!!!!!!!!!!

[Dakota]

Originally Posted by NCASAUmp

Ooh! Ooh! Pick me! Pick me!

[greymule]

Quiet down, children! It's justcallmeblue's turn.

[David Emerling]

Originally Posted by greymule

OK, justcallmeblue, now what should the call be if after the IFR is invoked, the fielder intentionally drops the fly ball and thus decoys the runners into attempting to advance, and one of them is put out?

The "intentionally dropped ball" rule can never apply when an Infield Fly has been called.

No matter how intentional or devious the actions are on the part of the infielder, the runners received all the information they needed when the umpire(s) bellowed out, "INFIELD FLY, BATTER'S OUT!"

They are not forced. The only way a double play can now occur is if one of the runners foolishly walks into a tag.

Can an infielder legally, and intentionally, drop a declared infield fly?

Yes!

David Emerling
Memphis, TN

[greymule]

Gold Star, David!

[Skahtboi]

Originally Posted by David Emerling

The "intentionally dropped ball" rule can never apply when an Infield Fly has been called.

No matter how intentional or devious the actions are on the part of the infielder, the runners received all the information they needed when the umpire(s) bellowed out, "INFIELD FLY, BATTER'S OUT!"

They are not forced. The only way a double play can now occur is if one of the runners foolishly walks into a tag.

Can an infielder legally, and intentionally, drop a declared infield fly?

Yes!

David Emerling
Memphis, TN

Are you "justcallmeblue?"

[NCASAUmp]

Originally Posted by Skahtboi

Are you "justcallmeblue?"

Yeah! Boooooo! Hiss! I had my hand up first, man!

[David Emerling]

Originally Posted by Skahtboi

Are you "justcallmeblue?"

Oops! Sorry. Was that question just for him?

By bad.

David Emerling
Memphis, TN

[greymule]

Oops! Sorry. Was that question just for him?

Yes, but justcallmeblue refused to answer and is now standing in the corner. You still get a Gold Star, David.

NCASAUump, for waiting your turn, you get the next question (if I can think of one!).

[NCASAUmp]

Originally Posted by greymule

Oops! Sorry. Was that question just for him?

Yes, but justcallmeblue refused to answer and is now standing in the corner. You still get a Gold Star, David.

NCASAUump, for waiting your turn, you get the next question (if I can think of one!).

As long as it's a SP question, I'm game.

Though in advance, my answer is: 42.