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  #1 (permalink)  
Old Tue Sep 11, 2001, 07:33am
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r1 on 2b batter takes 3strike(not droped no attempt to go to 1b) catcher fires ball to 1b unocupied. could this be consider an illegal pitch and move r1 to 3b?
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Old Tue Sep 11, 2001, 09:17am
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Location: Twin Cities MN
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No (ASA)

Speaking ASA...

I assume you are thinking about ASA rule 6-6B which says...

The catcher shall return the ball directly to the pitcher after each pitch...

however, the rule lists two exceptions...

...except after a strikeout.

and

EXCEPTION: Does not apply when the batter becomes a batter-runner or there are runners on base.

Besides, even if the exceptions do not come in to play, the effect is a ball is called, not an illegal pitch.
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Old Tue Sep 11, 2001, 11:29am
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I was really refering to fed rules. and it was strike 3 on batter. would next batter start with 1-0 count?
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Old Tue Sep 11, 2001, 01:15pm
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Terry.

The rule for FED is basically the same as for ASA. That is, no ball is awarded if the catcher does not return the ball directly to the pitcher after a strikeout or with runners on base.

And no, the next batter does not start with a 1-0 count.

--Sam
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Old Tue Sep 11, 2001, 07:50pm
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Thumbs up RE; Illegal Pitch FED

Quote:
Originally posted by TERRY1
I was really refering to fed rules. and it was strike 3 on batter. would next batter start with 1-0 count?
Since Dakota and Sam have correctly answered
your question and Dakota quoted ASA rule, I
can only echo their views and add NFHS Rule
6.3.2. page 46 2001 book.

glen
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