r1 on 2b batter takes 3strike(not droped no attempt to go to 1b) catcher fires ball to 1b unocupied. could this be consider an illegal pitch and move r1 to 3b?

No (ASA)
 

Speaking ASA...

I assume you are thinking about ASA rule 6-6B which says...

<font color="blue">The catcher shall return the ball directly to the pitcher after each pitch...</font>

however, the rule lists two exceptions...

<font color="blue">...except after a strikeout.</font>

and

<font color="blue">EXCEPTION: Does not apply when the batter becomes a batter-runner <u>or there are runners on base.</u></font>

Besides, even if the exceptions do not come in to play, the effect is a ball is called, not an illegal pitch.

I was really refering to fed rules. and it was strike 3 on batter. would next batter start with 1-0 count?

Terry.

The rule for FED is basically the same as for ASA. That is, no ball is awarded if the catcher does not return the ball directly to the pitcher after a strikeout or with runners on base.

And no, the next batter does not start with a 1-0 count.

--Sam

RE; Illegal Pitch FED
 

Since Dakota and Sam have correctly answered
your question and Dakota quoted ASA rule, I
can only echo their views and add NFHS Rule
6.3.2. page 46 2001 book.

glen