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  #1 (permalink)  
Old Mon Feb 13, 2006, 03:04pm
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Cool

Base hit to outfield gap, F3 standing on 1B, not sure why. BR tries to round 1B, runs into F3, then decides not to try for 2B because of momentum loss, stays at 1B. The BR probably would have made 2B without the collision.

Is this obvious OBS, or does the runner have to attempt to go to 2B after the OBS to get the award?
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Old Mon Feb 13, 2006, 04:16pm
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Quote:
Originally posted by dweezil24
Quote:
Originally posted by mcrowder
Can you please stop asking the same questions that have been asked 100 times?

Or crack open a book.

There never has been a requirement for a runner to attempt to get to a base in order to be awarded it.

If there was, every first baseman would be coached to tackle the batter runner before they reached first base on anything hit to the gap.
Ouch, jeez, no need for that kind of response. Just trying to make sure I got a call right last night, and I did. Thanks for nothing.
Let's see, 14 posts, member 4 weeks. How did you miss seeing this posted 100 times. Yeah, you made the right call. Put him where he would have ended up had the obstruction not occurred.

Mike
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Old Mon Feb 13, 2006, 04:56pm
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Guys, I can sometimes be a jerk when it's warranted... but I DID NOT MAKE THAT POST! I've deleted it, and make no claim to that post. I don't know if someone hacked and used my name, or if someone got on here at work and posted while I had the thing open.

I WILL say that the way it's worded sounds like 1 certain someone, and would bet that many here would know who I'm talking about... but OTOH, that guy normally lurks on the baseball side, so who knows.

I'll be on the lookout now...

To the OP, yes, you award what the runner would have gotten without the OPS, regardless of whether they attempted to go there or not. A runner could trip rounding first and break an ankle, on what would have been a home run - you still award home even if they don't even try to go to 2nd.
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Old Mon Feb 13, 2006, 07:33pm
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Warning: There could be problems if you do not log off the board.

Recently while on vacation in Bogota, I used a public PC at the hotel to check the board. I then used the PC at my friend's house a couple of times to visit the board. The last time at my friend's, I hit the "log off" button.

The next day I visited the hotel public PC and found I was still logged on, from four days previous. In other words, it is the PC being used that is logged on with your id or not... if you log off from another PC, it does not matter.

If anyone answers in Spanish from my id, then it's probably not me... unless the syntax is bad.

BTW... what kind of job you got where you search the boards from work? And are they hiring?
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Old Mon Feb 13, 2006, 07:41pm
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Talking

Quote:
Originally posted by mcrowder
A runner could trip rounding first and break an ankle, on what would have been a home run - you still award home even if they don't even try to go to 2nd.
IF and only if, the ball cleared the fence, would I award HP.
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Old Tue Feb 14, 2006, 09:03am
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Yeah - I meant to type that the reason for the broken ankle was an OBS by F3... typing too fast will do that to ya.
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Old Tue Feb 14, 2006, 10:53am
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Quote:
Originally posted by mcrowder
Guys, I can sometimes be a jerk when it's warranted... but I DID NOT MAKE THAT POST! I've deleted it, and make no claim to that post. I don't know if someone hacked and used my name, or if someone got on here at work and posted while I had the thing open.

I WILL say that the way it's worded sounds like 1 certain someone, and would bet that many here would know who I'm talking about... but OTOH, that guy normally lurks on the baseball side, so who knows.

I'll be on the lookout now...

To the OP, yes, you award what the runner would have gotten without the OPS, regardless of whether they attempted to go there or not. A runner could trip rounding first and break an ankle, on what would have been a home run - you still award home even if they don't even try to go to 2nd.
Oh man, sorry about my response then, no harm, no foul. Wierd.

I was sure I made the right call at first, until I read this in the LBR/OBS thread:

"baserunner must still run bases legally after an OBS"

which made me wonder if the runner had to attempt to continue on in order to be awarded the base.

But then I figured out that staying at 1B is a perfectly legal way to run the bases, so the BR would indeed get 2B.

If the BR had attempted to run the bases in reverse order and was OBSed by F5, then they are running the bases illegally and no OBS will be called, duh, I get it.

Thanks for something!
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Old Tue Feb 14, 2006, 10:53am
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Warning - Hijack attempt!!!

Quote:
Originally posted by mcrowder
Yeah - I meant to type that the reason for the broken ankle was an OBS by F3... typing too fast will do that to ya.
Just out of curiosity...how would this be administered assumming that the BR is unable to continue and must be carried off the field? Would a legal substitute be brought in to complete the baserunning duties after the original BR has been tended to?

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  #9 (permalink)  
Old Tue Feb 14, 2006, 11:00am
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Quote:
Originally posted by dweezil24
"baserunner must still run bases legally after an OBS"
which made me wonder if the runner had to attempt to continue on in order to be awarded the base.
All that statement was meant to say was that a baserunner can still be out after an OBS between the bases where she was OBS'd if she runs the bases illegally. Specific exceptions are noted in the book (like passing another runner, etc). The debate where you read that comment was about whether LBR could/should be a reason an OBS'd runner could be called out between the bases where she was OBS'd. I don't think we resolved it.

Andy - I think if she truly could not walk due to an injury caused by an OBS, most umpires would allow someone else to run the award for her, similar to a homerun over the fence.
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