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Old Thu Jun 07, 2001, 11:39am
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Join Date: Jun 2001
Posts: 6
The way I read it, according to Rule 8, Section 3-B, The runner would be out.

"When a runner or batter-runner acquires the right to a base by touching it before being put out, the runner or batter-runner is entitled to hold the base until legally touching the next base in order or is forced to vacate it for a succeeding runner.
EFFECT - The ball is in play, and the runners may advance or return with liability to be put out"

The original R1 was forced from first base and touched second base, thus making second base he is entitled to hold. He no longer has a right to first base. As in the "EFFECT" above, advancing or returning, would make him liabil to be tagged out.

Just my view!

Gus
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