Need a Rule Interpretation

David Emerling · #28 (**permalink**) Mon Nov 07, 2005, 11:37am

Quote:

Originally posted by IRISHMAFIA

Quote:

Originally posted by baldgriff
OK - I am confused here maybe I am not reading this correctly.

Did the runner get to first base? Was there a play involving the runner at first? I guess I am trying to figure out why there was no signal of safe, if the runner had made it to first.

I can understand not making a call if the runner stopped on the way to first, but why would you not make a call if the runner was at first?

See Steve's post above. No ball, no call. This is the mechanic being taught at the upper levels of play.

I was reading through this thread and was amazed at this.

Are you saying that NCAA umpires are taught to signal NOTHING when ...

the BR reaches first before and the defense has failed to secure the ball in time while in contact with the bag? How odd!

Why would the offense not get the benefit of "Safe!" call in this instance? There is nothing pending. At the time the BR crossed the bag the defense had not yet gained possession of the ball and tagged the bag. That's just about the DEFINITION of being safe - isn't it?

She's safe! Why not say so?

Am I missing something? It seems a "no call" would only serve to create confusion.

David Emerling
Memphis, TN

[Edited by David Emerling on Nov 7th, 2005 at 11:40 AM]