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  #16 (permalink)  
Old Tue Oct 04, 2005, 03:06pm
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Quote:
Originally posted by tzme415
Quote:
Originally posted by IRISHMAFIA

See Steve's post above. No ball, no call. This is the mechanic being taught at the upper levels of play.
That is good to know. I have been making the safe call on dropped balls. Does this only apply to 1st or also bases where a force would be in effect?
Anytime the defender doesn't have possession of the ball, and it is apparent to all participants, then the rule of thumb would be not to make a call.
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  #17 (permalink)  
Old Tue Oct 04, 2005, 03:55pm
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Yes, but I think inherent in the definition of this play was the fact that ALL participants (namely the batter-runner) did NOT, in fact, see the ball. A mild signal might have been in order. But the lack of signal is certainly no reason to protect the runner. I have an out on this one as well.
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  #18 (permalink)  
Old Tue Oct 04, 2005, 06:08pm
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on this play

On this play, it was clear that the ball was not caught. The throw from F6 was in the dirt, and on the attempted scoop the ball came out and rolled about 7-10 feet from F3.

IMO, this is the same philosophy as not calling obvious foul balls.

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  #19 (permalink)  
Old Wed Oct 05, 2005, 06:42am
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Quote:
Originally posted by mcrowder
Yes, but I think inherent in the definition of this play was the fact that ALL participants (namely the batter-runner) did NOT, in fact, see the ball. A mild signal might have been in order. But the lack of signal is certainly no reason to protect the runner. I have an out on this one as well.
Does the BR really need to see it? After all, she has her own personal coach there to direct her movements.

But Andy was correct. Not talking about balls simply dropped, but those which have passed by or are rolling away from the play that should be apparent to everyone.

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  #20 (permalink)  
Old Wed Oct 05, 2005, 06:48am
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Why an out?

I am assuming some things here, like if you ruled the runner safe, I would assume that the reached first base. They are allowed to overrun first base without being in jeapardy unless they make an attempt toward second; from your post,it does not appear that there was an attempt to advance toward second. So why would the runner be in jeopardy of being tagged out?

I might live with this being interpreted that the runner abandoned their base, but I still can't see how you would consider the runner in jeopardy.

I agree with all the mechanics discussed. "No ball, no call" for a ball that eludes the first baseman and it is apparent to everyone that the ball is loose. On one that the first baseman drops and it relatively close to first and they can retrieve quickly, I have a point, "ball's on the ground, safe" verbal call.
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  #21 (permalink)  
Old Wed Oct 05, 2005, 07:03am
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Re: Why an out?

Quote:
Originally posted by KBoy
I am assuming some things here, like if you ruled the runner safe, I would assume that the reached first base. They are allowed to overrun first base without being in jeapardy unless they make an attempt toward second; from your post,it does not appear that there was an attempt to advance toward second. So why would the runner be in jeopardy of being tagged out?


"originial post"
Batter-runner hits a ground ball to F6. F6 throws to first. The throw is low and F3 cannot hold onto the ball and the ball rolls away. Clearly a safe and I do not signal anything. The batter-runner believes that F3 caught the ball and thinks she is out. She heads for the 3rd base dugout and is approximately half way between home plate and 1st base. The defense realizes the batter-runner is off the base, grabs the ball and tags her.

Allowed to overrun 1B, yes, but heading for 3B dugout, would you know her intent? No, call her out.
glen





I might live with this being interpreted that the runner abandoned their base, but I still can't see how you would consider the runner in jeopardy.

I agree with all the mechanics discussed. "No ball, no call" for a ball that eludes the first baseman and it is apparent to everyone that the ball is loose. On one that the first baseman drops and it relatively close to first and they can retrieve quickly, I have a point, "ball's on the ground, safe" verbal call. [/B]
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  #22 (permalink)  
Old Wed Oct 05, 2005, 08:11am
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Glen,

I don't like cheap outs; I think it is pretty clear that the runner is confused by the call, not trying to advance.
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  #23 (permalink)  
Old Wed Oct 05, 2005, 08:45am
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No cheap out....What's the coach doing?

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  #24 (permalink)  
Old Wed Oct 05, 2005, 09:52am
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Maybe the coach was confused by the no call too. The times I have witnessed these types of things, there is confusion over the ball location and umpire call. Maybe this one is out of the ordinary.
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  #25 (permalink)  
Old Wed Oct 05, 2005, 11:51am
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Quote:
Originally posted by KBoy
Maybe the coach was confused by the no call too. The times I have witnessed these types of things, there is confusion over the ball location and umpire call. Maybe this one is out of the ordinary.
The reference is an NCAA game with an NCAA coach, not some 10U tournament.

If this coach isn't on the ball enough to catch this and have the runner return to 1B, then the school should be looking for a new coach.

Also, a BR may overrun 1B, but they are to immediately return to the base or advance, not meander around the field until they are ready to commit.

The play, initial no call and out seems obvious to me.
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  #26 (permalink)  
Old Thu Oct 06, 2005, 06:44am
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Talking

Obviously you haven't done a whole lot of D-III NCAA softball
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  #27 (permalink)  
Old Thu Oct 06, 2005, 08:24am
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Quote:
Originally posted by KBoy
Obviously you haven't done a whole lot of D-III NCAA softball
Nor do I want to.

However, I still don't believe that the NCAA level is an excuse for poor base coaching.
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  #28 (permalink)  
Old Mon Nov 07, 2005, 11:37am
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Quote:
Originally posted by IRISHMAFIA
Quote:
Originally posted by baldgriff
OK - I am confused here maybe I am not reading this correctly.

Did the runner get to first base? Was there a play involving the runner at first? I guess I am trying to figure out why there was no signal of safe, if the runner had made it to first.

I can understand not making a call if the runner stopped on the way to first, but why would you not make a call if the runner was at first?
See Steve's post above. No ball, no call. This is the mechanic being taught at the upper levels of play.
I was reading through this thread and was amazed at this.

Are you saying that NCAA umpires are taught to signal NOTHING when ...

the BR reaches first before and the defense has failed to secure the ball in time while in contact with the bag? How odd!

Why would the offense not get the benefit of "Safe!" call in this instance? There is nothing pending. At the time the BR crossed the bag the defense had not yet gained possession of the ball and tagged the bag. That's just about the DEFINITION of being safe - isn't it?

She's safe! Why not say so?

Am I missing something? It seems a "no call" would only serve to create confusion.

David Emerling
Memphis, TN

[Edited by David Emerling on Nov 7th, 2005 at 11:40 AM]
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  #29 (permalink)  
Old Mon Nov 07, 2005, 03:14pm
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The NCAA is only trying to eliminate extraneous, obvious calls. If the whole ball park can see that the runner is safe, there is no call. The line between call and no-call will be a little different for each umpire and will certainly vary as an umpire gets used to using the no-call. It is just another level on the call chart (ie. overhand sell, vocal hammer, non-vocal hammer, no-call, non-vocal safe, vocal safe, sell safe) that NCAA umpires are expected to put in their bag.
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  #30 (permalink)  
Old Mon Nov 07, 2005, 06:11pm
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Quote:
Originally posted by David Emerling


I was reading through this thread and was amazed at this.

Are you saying that NCAA umpires are taught to signal NOTHING when ...

the BR reaches first before and the defense has failed to secure the ball in time while in contact with the bag? How odd!

Why would the offense not get the benefit of "Safe!" call in this instance? There is nothing pending. At the time the BR crossed the bag the defense had not yet gained possession of the ball and tagged the bag. That's just about the DEFINITION of being safe - isn't it?

She's safe! Why not say so?

Am I missing something? It seems a "no call" would only serve to create confusion.

David Emerling
Memphis, TN

[Edited by David Emerling on Nov 7th, 2005 at 11:40 AM]
Yes, you are missing something.

We are not talking about close plays and a bobbled ball. We are talking about a throw to first that gets by F3 and rolls to the fence while the BR slows down after running through the bag. The guys in the space station can see the runner is safe, so why should the umpire stand there looking at a vacant space on the field giving a safe signal?

Part of this is to allow the umpire to give more of a priority in following the ball and repositioning themselves for a possible following play.

Same thing with an obvious foul ball. If it's over the backstop, the stands and onto the neighboring field, why is there a need for a big foul call? Unless there are runner's moving or a fielder heading toward a fence, there is no reason for such a call. Reach in the bag and get another ball.

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