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Old Mon Sep 12, 2005, 01:56pm
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Join Date: Mar 2005
Posts: 382
I will help in a training method here .
Think of what you have written .

If interference occurs but in the judgement of the umpire no play was possible .

Do we then have interference ?( look up definition of interference )

If the offense gets an advantage by having runners advance . Do we have interference ?

By this training method the person rethinks their question looks at a rule book and answers the question .
They are therefore not blindly by good meaning umpires giving wrong interpretations .

NOTE : My last statement does not reflect any advice on this forum !
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