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I will help in a training method here .
Think of what you have written .
If interference occurs but in the judgement of the umpire no play was possible .
Do we then have interference ?( look up definition of interference )
If the offense gets an advantage by having runners advance . Do we have interference ?
By this training method the person rethinks their question looks at a rule book and answers the question .
They are therefore not blindly by good meaning umpires giving wrong interpretations .
NOTE : My last statement does not reflect any advice on this forum !
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