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We all know that bunting is illegal in slow pitch. A batter who bunts a pitch is out. In a recent business league game, I called a batter out for bunting (though he made a comical attempt to fake a full swing by continuing to move the bat around after the bunt).
But if the bunted ball is foul, is the batter still out? Or do the words "within the infield" imply that to be considered a bunt, a ball must be fair? And suppose a batter bunts and the runner on 1B runs. F2 catches the bunt in the air and throws to 1B to get the runner for leaving before the catch. Do we allow the double play or call the batter out and return the runner to 1B? I assume that a bunt attempt that misses is not considered a bunt but would still be a strike. And that a bunt foul on strike 3 would be an out. Same with a chop. Suppose a batter obviously chops down on a ball but fouls it or even misses it? Is he out?
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greymule More whiskey—and fresh horses for my men! Roll Tide! |
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My gut call would be to use ASA 7.6.H to call the batter out, missed or not.
The rules obviously don't want either of these techniques to be part of the SP game. So should we look the other way when an attempt to use one of them fails? With this said, a failed chop would be a lot less clear than a failed bunt. If the batter did make any kind of contact, look at EFFECT under 7.6.K: the ball is dead and runners return. If we want to get pedantic about it, 7.6.H uses "bunt" and "chop" as verbs; but Rule 1 defines each of these as nouns. Of course, I'd probably get protested. (rookie!!) Anybody think I'd be upheld?
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