When does INT become OBS or does it??

[DaveASA/FED]

Ok another thread on another board got me thinking (dangerous). Here is situation, F6 going after batter ball R1 from 2nd running to 3rd. No arguement that if F6 and R1 collide as F6 is fielding the batted ball we have INT dead ball bye bye R1.
1) Now if F6 has fielded the ball and is coming up with it and then contact is made I would think we don't have INT (unless intentional) as F6 has completed fielding the ball, and is getting ready to throw it so I would think must be intentional to get INT. It wouldn't be OBS as the fielder has the ball. What if the fielder loses the ball as result of contact? I guess the root of the question is where would you judge that F6 has finished "fielding a batted ball"??
2) F6 (not real alert) throws the ball to first and as soon as ball is released contact is made between F6 and R1. Do we have OBS?

I know this is splitting hairs but I could see it happen with different results depending on the exact point of events easier to think about it here then on the field in a matter of milliseconds!

Thanks in advance.

[IRISHMAFIA]

Originally posted by DaveASA/FED
Ok another thread on another board got me thinking (dangerous). Here is situation, F6 going after batter ball R1 from 2nd running to 3rd. No arguement that if F6 and R1 collide as F6 is fielding the batted ball we have INT dead ball bye bye R1.
1) Now if F6 has fielded the ball and is coming up with it and then contact is made I would think we don't have INT (unless intentional) as F6 has completed fielding the ball, and is getting ready to throw it so I would think must be intentional to get INT. It wouldn't be OBS as the fielder has the ball. What if the fielder loses the ball as result of contact? I guess the root of the question is where would you judge that F6 has finished "fielding a batted ball"??
2) F6 (not real alert) throws the ball to first and as soon as ball is released contact is made between F6 and R1. Do we have OBS?

I know this is splitting hairs but I could see it happen with different results depending on the exact point of events easier to think about it here then on the field in a matter of milliseconds!

Thanks in advance.

Speaking ASA

#1. This would still be INT if the umpire believes the contact prevented the fielder from throwing the ball, no intent required.

#2. I would think that R1 would have to be really stupid to run at the defender with the ball or it was intentional trying to draw an OBS. Unless the contact has some type of affect on the defender's ability to continue in this play, I probably have no call.

[SRW]

1) Wouldn't this be a tag, out?

2) Sounds like OBS to me...

[whiskers_ump]

Originally posted by SRW
1) Wouldn't this be a tag, out?

1) If runner was touched with ball/glove w/ball]{/B]

2) Sounds like OBS to me... [/B]

Agree with Mike

[rwest]

Originally posted by DaveASA/FED
Ok another thread on another board got me thinking (dangerous). Here is situation, F6 going after batter ball R1 from 2nd running to 3rd. No arguement that if F6 and R1 collide as F6 is fielding the batted ball we have INT dead ball bye bye R1.
1) Now if F6 has fielded the ball and is coming up with it and then contact is made I would think we don't have INT (unless intentional) as F6 has completed fielding the ball, and is getting ready to throw it so I would think must be intentional to get INT. It wouldn't be OBS as the fielder has the ball. What if the fielder loses the ball as result of contact? I guess the root of the question is where would you judge that F6 has finished "fielding a batted ball"??
2) F6 (not real alert) throws the ball to first and as soon as ball is released contact is made between F6 and R1. Do we have OBS?

I know this is splitting hairs but I could see it happen with different results depending on the exact point of events easier to think about it here then on the field in a matter of milliseconds!

Thanks in advance.

1) I've got interference. This is part of fielding the ball. F6 has the right to complete his throw without interference from R1, intentional or otherwise. That's why ASA says that interference with a THROWN ball has to be intentional. Interference with a fielder in the act of throwing does not have to be intentional.

2) I've got a train wreck. The fielder can not immediately disappear after throwing the ball. R1 should have been running on the back side of the fielder. That way R1 does not interfere with the throw. If he/she is foolish enough to run right at the fielder, thats his/her problem.

[Andy]

Here's the play I had a few weeks ago....

R1 on second, one out, ground ball hit to F6.
F6 runs toward R1 as she has led off second with the pitch. R1 is retreating to second. After a few steps, F6 realizes that she will not be able to reach R1 for a tag play and throws to first for the out. F3 catches the ball and fires across the diamond to third to get R1 advancing from second for the third out.

Third base coach comes out to me and wants an obstruction call on the shortstop..he says that the shortstop was in his runners way as she released the ball. I told him...nice try, but the call stands.

[whiskers_ump]

Never, because the ball became dead immediately on INT, Nothing else could occur.