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Wed May 18, 2005, 08:15am
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FED rules requires that the umpire put a new ball in play at the completion of the 1st half inning if the original ball (that began the game) has not gone out of play yet.
Can the umpire refuse to allow the home team pitcher, in the first half of inning #1, a new ball when she requests based on this rule or any other that I may be missing? 
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