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FED rules requires that the umpire put a new ball in play at the completion of the 1st half inning if the original ball (that began the game) has not gone out of play yet.
Can the umpire refuse to allow the home team pitcher, in the first half of inning #1, a new ball when she requests based on this rule or any other that I may be missing? |
Has the game started?
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Any other rules this umpire could have gotten that interpretation from, cause I've never heard of this before??? |
He used the right rule, but the wrong sentence from the rule. The rule is NFHS 4-1-4. The topic is "ball rotation." Here is the rule. I've bolded the parts that you are asking about.
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