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blueump Wed May 18, 2005 08:15am

FED rules requires that the umpire put a new ball in play at the completion of the 1st half inning if the original ball (that began the game) has not gone out of play yet.

Can the umpire refuse to allow the home team pitcher, in the first half of inning #1, a new ball when she requests based on this rule or any other that I may be missing?

Dakota Wed May 18, 2005 09:30am

Has the game started?

blueump Wed May 18, 2005 09:56am

Quote:

Originally posted by Dakota
Has the game started?
Game was started...2 outs...PU refused to change balls when requested by the pitcher stating that due to rule stated above, the visiting pitcher was allowed the other "new ball", unless the first ball went out of play.

Any other rules this umpire could have gotten that interpretation from, cause I've never heard of this before???

Dakota Wed May 18, 2005 10:24am

He used the right rule, but the wrong sentence from the rule. The rule is NFHS 4-1-4. The topic is "ball rotation." Here is the rule. I've bolded the parts that you are asking about.
Quote:

The pitcher has a choice of balls at the start of each half-inning, unless both balls do not get put into play in the first half of the first inning. In that case, the pitcher in the bottom of the first inning must throw the unused ball. Thereafter, the ball in play should be returned to the 16-foot circle after every third out. The pitcher taking the field now has a ball to start the next half-inning. The pitcher may request the other ball before throwing a warm-up pitch by giving the ball in her possession to the plate umpire. The pitcher now has made a choice and must pitch that ball until such time as ti goes out of play or becomes blocked.
Basically, once she starts her warm-up pitches, she may not request another ball "just because." The ball would need to be in unplayable condition (wet, damaged). Otherwise, she must continue to use it.


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