What's The Call?

[Dakota]

Originally posted by HM1 Hammonds
LBR not in effect because no runners are off a base. True or False?

False. Read the conditions for the rule being in effect.

Originally posted by HM1 Hammonds
The only way to resolve this is for the defense to make a play at 2B and tag R1. True or False?

False.

Originally posted by HM1 Hammonds
8.7T(1) When a runner is legitimately off a base after a pitch or as a result of a batter completing a turn at bat, and while the pitcher has control of the ball within an eight foot radius of the pitchers plate, the runner may stop once, but then must immediately return to the base or attempt to advance to the next base.

8.3B When a runner or batter-runner acquires the right to a base by touching it before being put out, the runner or batter-runner is entitled to hold the base until legally touching the next base in order or is forced to vacate it for a suceeding runner.


In this instance, the B-R (sic) ... I think you meant R3? did not acquire the right to 2B. She could not steal 2B as it was occupied so she was obligated to return to 1B.

Not true. She is in jeopardy of being put out, but she may choose to stay right there until the defense acts.

Originally posted by HM1 Hammonds
8.7T(2)does say that the runner must immediately return to the base or attempt to advance to the next base.

I assume you meant 8.7T(1), but since you brought up (2), what does it say? It says "Once the runner stops at a base for any reason hmmm... says nothing about being eititled to the base. The whole LBR refers to the bases this way. If the runner is on a base...

Originally posted by HM1 Hammonds
Can the R3 legally occupy 2B? She can't "occupy" 2B because she was not forced to vacate 1B. R2 is not "forced" to vacate 2B. Seems to me that if R3 does not make an "immediate" move to return to 1B then that runner can be called out.

Rule citation, please?