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Old Sun Sep 05, 2004, 02:58pm
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Originally posted by IRISHMAFIA
Originally posted by bethsdad
Jel stated the catcher had no chance of making a play on the runner (in her judgement) . Would this rule still apply ? Brian
Well, I never saw where Jel stated that, but it was posted that R1 did reach home before the contact, which I find very hard to believe given the way the scenario was presented. However, if that was the case the run would score, but R2 would return to 2B. How can one determine whether the defense had a play if there was never the opportunity to attain the ball on it's initial path while there was still an active runner?

Yes, the rule still applies.

SORRY ... my mistake! after rereading she said the catcher WOULD have been able to make a play.
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