|
Wed Feb 18, 2004, 05:16pm
|
|||
|
|||
|
You would never receive an argument from me. I have no problem with referring to the play on the BR as a force out just because it doesn't fall under rule 1's definition.
It doesn't bother me, either. The baseboard board has some particular sticklers about this point, though. On the other hand, another baseball poster did point out that no one has been able to cite a situation in which differentiating between a force out and an out made by the BR before reaching 1B would make any difference in how a play was called.
__________________
greymule More whiskey—and fresh horses for my men! Roll Tide! 
|
| Bookmarks |
|
|
Threaded Mode
