NFHS: Where do we put the ball?

[JRutledge]

Originally Posted by DJ_NV

Ok but we don't have a COP per 2-34-3. In order for there to be a COP, there needs to be player possession as defined in 2-34-1. Since R only touched the ball and did not control it, we don't have a COP by definition even though PSK philossophy kind of dictates that intent during a kick. Still, it's not supported by rule. If we don't have a COP, then we can't have an IFP per 7-5-2-a. I agree with everything else you said about the new series.

But K can advance the ball and will end up with the ball if they do not do anything else with the ball. So I am not sure this would not be on some level a COP. But I am not sure about that, but I thought that needed to be pointed out.

Peace

[DJ_NV]

I'm certainly not arguing with the philosophy, in fact that's what started this fun debate in our local association. It's the rule support that we're looking for here.

[JRutledge]

Originally Posted by DJ_NV

I'm certainly not arguing with the philosophy, in fact that's what started this fun debate in our local association. It's the rule support that we're looking for here.

I am just saying that K has a ball behind the LOS that R touched beyond the LOS. If the ball is downed at the spot where K had it, we are giving the ball back to K. So I cannot see any reason why they would not still have the ball at the end of this sequence. I am not arguing, just saying I do not see any reason to give the ball to R or have a loss of down penalty portion enforced.

Peace

[bossman72]

There was no COP on this play. K snapped the ball, and K is going to snap the ball on the next play - no COP. Legal forward pass. At the end of the down it will be 1 and 10 at the 40.

Besides, doesn't the word break-down of the phrase "Change of Possession" imply that the other team Possess the ball at one point in time during the down?