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Old Wed Dec 05, 2001, 02:32am
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Unhappy

Maybe I'm just whining, but the way the Jaguars' last play was scored, cost me a fantasy football game. Wasn't Brunell's arm going forward? Much like it was earlier in the game when it was ruled an incompletion. How could the ball be going forward and not be another incompletion? The fact that play was called a sack and fumble, gave my opponent three defensive points allowing for a tie, which he wins by bench points. I guess the main reason for my post was to ask if NFL official scorers change their judgments after the game has completed? You know, like baseball scorers do? You've seen an error turned into a hit a day or two later. What about football? Of course time is a factor, so unless this play is changed by Wednesday, I will be out of luck since all scores are final by that time. I just wondered if this ever occurs. Thanks for your time.
tkh
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Old Wed Dec 05, 2001, 09:49am
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The officiating crew had talked to your fantasy opponent at half time and realized that he needed help to beat you. That is the reason that the play was called the way it was.

It was a conspiricy from the beginning. Most of the officials on that crew used to work for the CIA and were instrumental in the JFK investigation too.
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Old Wed Dec 05, 2001, 12:06pm
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Fumble vs Incompletion

I have no idea about changes in NFL scoring rules, but I did notice an incorrect statement you made regarding the direction of the ball as it is fumbled. Now I officiate under NCAA rules and not NFL rules, so there may be some slight discrepancies but I doubt it.

When a defender hits the QB and the ball comes out, the officials on the field (usually the Referee) must be able to rule on movement of the QB's arm, not on the direction that the ball takes when it leaves his possession. The fact that a ball travels forward when a player loses possession in no way is any indication that a pass has been attempted. Think about when a runner loses possession downfield. Just because the ball travels forward before hitting the ground doesn't mean that an incomplete pass has occurred.

In order to have "pass" under NCAA rules, the QB must begin an intentional forward motion of his arm.
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Old Sat Dec 08, 2001, 01:56am
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bigwhistle - Thanks, that's what I thought.

RickW - I think I know what you're getting at. But the fact is, I stated that I thought Brunell's arm was going forward when the ball came loose. Thus, when I stated "How could the ball be going forward and not be another incompletion?", I was speaking relative to my previous statement that I thought his arm was traveling forward. I understand that the ball merely traveling forward, does not constitute a forward pass.
Thanks for the reply anyway.

tkh
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