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Old Fri Oct 14, 2005, 04:02pm
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Weird play last night in JV game.

I didn't see the whole thing, but from what I gather, there was a loose ball behind the LOS right after the snap. Defensive team kicks ball (accidentally) back about 10 yards where (I think) defensive team recovers.

1. Does this fall under the illegal kicking (9-4-4) rule?

2. If so, how exactly do you enforce a loss of down provision against the defense? Is that part of the "not in conflict" business the rule is talking about?
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Old Fri Oct 14, 2005, 04:26pm
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It is my understanding that a kick is an intentional act. 2-15-1 says that "Kicking the ball is intentionally striking the ball with the knee, lower leg, or foot." An inadvertent touching of the ball with the foot would not be a kick for purposes of the rules.

So in your play, this is just a loose ball, no foul.

If the kick was intentional, then yes - this is part of the exception to the LOD provision.
"Many baseball fans look upon an umpire as a sort of necessary evil to the luxury of baseball, like the odor that follows an automobile." - Hall of Fame Pitcher Christy Mathewson
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Old Fri Oct 14, 2005, 07:01pm
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NF Ref 9.7.1 Illegal Kick is intentionaly kicking ball other than free or scrimmage kick. This is no foul.

[Edited by andy1033 on Oct 14th, 2005 at 08:11 PM]
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Old Fri Oct 14, 2005, 10:49pm
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NCAA Not a foul as was not intentional. Had it been intentional, the LOD provision does not apply since foul would have been by Team B. Also would have been enforced from previous spot as end of related run was behind the NZ.
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