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Old Thu Mar 05, 2015, 02:13pm
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Originally Posted by Adam View Post
No where in this rule does it say contact is automatically a foul. The incidental contact rule still applies, and if B1 is not adversely affected by the contact, then by rule you cannot call a foul on A1.
That would make sense. I just hadn't heard that the defender being adversely impacted was the deciding factor on whether to call the foul on the offense.
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Old Thu Mar 05, 2015, 02:18pm
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Originally Posted by JeffM View Post
That would make sense. I just hadn't heard that the defender being adversely impacted was the deciding factor on whether to call the foul on the offense.
It's another way of wording the incidental contact rule.

"Contact which does not.... should be ruled incidental."

I don't have my book with me, so I'm hesitant to try to replicate the wording. Essentially, anything that doesn't hinder the opponent from participating in normal offensive or defensive movement is incidental.
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