Backcourt ruling?

[just another ref]

In order for it to be a violation it has to be last touched by the offense in the FC and first touched by the offense in BC, in spite of a recent interp to the contrary. This was not the case in your play.

[Mo-Money]

My understanding is that the ball is still in front court status since it did not touch the floor. Once A1 catches the ball, he is now the first and last person to touch it therefore, its backcourt.

[deecee]

Originally Posted by Mo-Money

My understanding is that the ball is still in front court status since it did not touch the floor. Once A1 catches the ball, he is now the first and last person to touch it therefore, its backcourt.

Who was the last to touch the ball in the FC? The defense. A player cannot be FC and BC at the same time.

[BryanV21]

You just have to ask yourself two questions...

1. Who, the offense or defense, was the last to touch the ball in the FC?

2. Who, the offense or defense, was the first to touch the ball in the BC?

If the answer to both of those questions is the offense, then you have yourself a violation. If not... play on.

[Camron Rust]

Originally Posted by Mo-Money

My understanding is that the ball is still in front court status since it did not touch the floor. Once A1 catches the ball, he is now the first and last person to touch it therefore, its backcourt.

Originally Posted by deecee

Who was the last to touch the ball in the FC? The defense. A player cannot be FC and BC at the same time.

Originally Posted by BryanV21

You just have to ask yourself two questions...

1. Who, the offense or defense, was the last to touch the ball in the FC?

2. Who, the offense or defense, was the first to touch the ball in the BC?

If the answer to both of those questions is the offense, then you have yourself a violation. If not... play on.

All of you are making the same error.

The rule is not who is the last to touch the ball IN the frontcourt but who was the last to touch the ball BEFORE it gained backcourt status (not when it gained backcourt status).

Likewise, it is about who is the first to touch the ball AFTER it gains backcourt status, not who is the first to touch the ball IN the backcourt.

Much of the time, it it the same thing, but not always....and the difference matters. Plus, the difference is why the above play is not a violation.

[BryanV21]

Originally Posted by Camron Rust

All of you are making the same error.

The rule is not who is the last to touch the ball IN the frontcourt but who was the last to touch the ball BEFORE it gained backcourt status (not when it gained backcourt status).

Likewise, it is about who is the first to touch the ball AFTER it gains backcourt status, not who is the first to touch the ball IN the backcourt.

Much of the time, it it the same thing, but not always....and the difference matters. Plus, the difference is why the above play is not a violation.

Could you explain a play in which the wording changes the result of the play? I ask because I have a violation in this scenario as well, but understand that my wording for having a violation is incorrect.

And it's late, so my brain has already shut off for the evening.

[Camron Rust]

Originally Posted by BryanV21

Could you explain a play in which the wording changes the result of the play? I ask because I have a violation in this scenario as well, but understand that my wording for having a violation is incorrect.

And it's late, so my brain has already shut off for the evening.

A1, in the frontcourt, near the division line, throws a bounce pass across the court such that the ball bounces in the backcourt very near the division line and then bounces in the frontcourt. A2, in the frontcourt, also near the division line, catches the ball. Neither player was ever in the backcourt, the ball was in the frontcourt at the time each player touched it. Yet, it is a violation.

Reverse the positions such that the players are both in the backcourt and the pass bounces in the frontcourt. Also a violation even though neither player was ever in the frontcourt.

[Mo-Money]

Based on everyone's feedback I guess everyone agree that it's not a back court violation then.

So here is another scenario...A1 is dribbling toward its front court and just before A1 reach mid-court he attempt to pass the ball to A2 who is in the front court. Unfortunately, the ball does not make it to A2 because B1 bats the ball back to A1 in the back court. During the passing and batting, the ball never touches the floor. Soon as B1 touch the ball would the ball status be consider having front court status now?

Would this be a back court violation once A1 catch the batted ball from B1?

[bob jenkins]

Originally Posted by BryanV21

Could you explain a play in which the wording changes the result of the play? I ask because I have a violation in this scenario as well, but understand that my wording for having a violation is incorrect.

And it's late, so my brain has already shut off for the evening.

What Camron said, plus the play from the case book where A1 in the BC throws the ball that hits the official in the FC. The ball caroms to the BC where A1 recovers. Violation.