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  #1 (permalink)  
Old Sun Jan 12, 2014, 02:41pm
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Join Date: Nov 2012
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Rich1 View Post
See this occassionally and it always gets me doubting myself.

Ball is at dispoisal of A1 for a throw in. While passing in the ball, A1 steps on the boundry line but not actually onto the court. Violation?
Why would this be a violation?
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  #2 (permalink)  
Old Sun Jan 12, 2014, 02:45pm
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Join Date: Mar 2012
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Quote:
Originally Posted by OKREF View Post
Why would this be a violation?

Do I hear an echo?
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  #3 (permalink)  
Old Sun Jan 12, 2014, 05:17pm
C'mon man!!
 
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How bout if they lose their balance and touch the court with the ball. Violation?
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  #4 (permalink)  
Old Sun Jan 12, 2014, 05:24pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Sharpshooternes View Post
How bout if they lose their balance and touch the court with the ball. Violation?
Depends. Inbounds or OOB?
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  #5 (permalink)  
Old Sun Jan 12, 2014, 06:52pm
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Join Date: Dec 2013
Location: Texas
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Quote:
Originally Posted by OKREF View Post
Why would this be a violation?
Its not and I have not called it that way but have worked with some who have so I was curious to see if I was missing something. A post by MTD has explained the origin of this misperception.
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  #6 (permalink)  
Old Sun Jan 12, 2014, 07:08pm
We don't rent pigs
 
Join Date: Nov 2002
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Rich1 View Post
A post by MTD has explained the origin of this misperception.
Not necessarily. Misperceptions need no excuse. "He stepped on the line so we should get the ball" is a deeply rooted concept which often does not bother with any further details, no matter which line, or from which side.
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