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Old Tue Aug 01, 2000, 09:32am
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quote:
Originally posted by BigDave:
If you determined his first move (the shot off the glass) to be a legitimate shot attempt, there is no violation. On the other hand, if he was definitely "passing" the ball to himself, then it is a violation.




Disagree -- at least under Fed rules, the play described is legal. See case 4.15.4C (I hope that's the right reference -- this is from the 98-99 rule book).

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