Shot goes in, then push foul. How often?

[Adam]

Originally Posted by RandyBrown

10-6-2 would not exist if incidental meant what you say it does. In fact, every contact rule would be modified to include what you say incidental means--"applies only when advantage/disadvantage is involved." I'm curious: What do you think they are talking about in POE #1?

Okay, I promised to address this, so here goes.

Incidental doesn't mean what I say it does, it means what 4-27 says it does. In particular, with regard to this discussion, I'm thinking of 4-27-3.

Originally Posted by Rule 4-27-3

Contact which does not hinder the opponent from participating in normal defensive or offensive movements should be considered incidental.

Now, 10-6-2:

Originally Posted by Rule 10-6-2

A player shall not contact an opponent with his/her hand....

This, along with every other article in 10-6 has to be read in light of 4-27-3. Failing to do so is going to lead you to call about three times as many fouls as you should

As for the POE of which you seem to think I'm in violation. Note it specifically talks about enforcing the rules "as written." You can't ignore 4-27-3 and hope to enforce 10-6-2 "as written."

Back to our hypthetical, what movements is A1 hindered from if he's driving by his defender, even if he gets slapped on the arm on his way by?