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Mon Nov 25, 2002, 04:47pm
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Yes, but. . . For this to be a violation, you would still have to have A2 touch while in the front court, which would make the whole thing pretty clear cut. If A2 touched in backcourt only, the fact that the ball acheived front court status is irrelevant, because you do not meet the third condition, A last to touch in front court. Make sense?
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