Sub for the shooter

[Splute]

Originally Posted by AllPurposeGamer

In the NBA as well, any foul before the ball is released on the throw-in is automatically two shots unless under two minutes in the 4th/overtime where it's an away from the play foul meaning any player on the court gets to shoot one free throw plus retain possession of the ball.

And Splute, the rule says specifically designed to keep the clock from starting. That doesn't mean any foul. We have to use our judgement. It would be very easy for a defender to make this play look "legitimate." Realistically, the only way this type of intentional foul is going to be called is if it's blatant.

When I first read the post I assumed the ball was still with the thrower; but with the ball in the air, I agree it is not necessarily a clear case for the INT.

[APG]

Originally Posted by Splute

When I first read the post I assumed the ball was still with the thrower; but with the ball in the air, I agree it is not necessarily a clear case for the INT.

Even if the ball is still in the thrower's hands, it doesn't mean it's still an automatic intentional foul. I could imagine scenarios where Team B would foul, but it would still be a legitimate play.

[Splute]

Originally Posted by AllPurposeGamer

Even if the ball is still in the thrower's hands, it doesn't mean it's still an automatic intentional foul. I could imagine scenarios where Team B would foul, but it would still be a legitimate play.

I agree it is not an automatic intentional and I apologize for giving that impression. I was poorly trying to state what you all know, that the definition of an intentional foul covers the the deliberate attempt to prevent the clock from starting. If that situation occurs we have a means to prevent the defense from unfairly gaining an advantage by having an opportunity to regain the ball without any time having elapsed on the clock. But I would avoid the terms automatic, always and never; they tend to come back and haunt me.