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If the GT occurs prior to the foul, the basket is good. The ball is dead at that point. However, an airborne shooter can foul after the ball has become dead. It's B's ball for an endline throw-in and they can run the endline. 4-1-1, 4-19-1 Note, 4-22-1, 7-5-7
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So A gets two points and one team foul, A1 gets a personal foul, and B gets the ball and to run the baseline. The logic is that although B gains some advantage by A1's PC foul, B1 in its goaltending gives some of that advantage up by A receiving two points. A doesn't seem to lose quite as much since B would get the ball either way, but they do get a foul added to the count, and that's something. [Edited by rainmaker on Oct 30th, 2002 at 10:27 AM] |
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Re: so you?
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1 - GT occurs on a play. 2 - AWARD the basket. 3 - Then, airborne player A1 fouls a PC foul. 4 - Since A fouled before B inbounded the ball after an AWARDED basket, they can run the baseline. A violation occurs. The violation must be penalized, even if a foul occurs after it. Read the definitions 4-1 and 4-19 for a better understanding. |
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Nope...it's still a PC foul. The GT violation caused the ball to become dead, but PC fouls have an exception to the dead ball foul rule...until the shooter comes back down, they are an airborn shooter - call it PC...
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Refer to your casebook. 4.19.6 Situation C covers this exact play, Page 28.
Penalize both ==> count the basket and B will get the ball for endline thow-in. A1 gets PC foul. The casebook states "A defensive-goaltending or basket-interference violation committed prior to a player-control foul does not contradict the general statement that when a player-control foul occurs that player cannot score."
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"There are no superstar calls. We don't root for certain teams. We don't cheat. But sometimes we just miss calls." - Joe Crawford |
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Re: Yep, that is a bit legalistic.
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I do think it makes it easier to explain why team A gets the two points, even though they committed a PC foul. |
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Nothin'
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RD |
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