Help with a rule.

[just another ref]

Originally Posted by Jurassic Referee

I'm talking about the ball touching somebody in the face. But I don't really care where the ball touches the defender. The fact is that it's the ball touching the defender that we're discussing, not the player holding the ball touching the defender with any part of his body. That never happened. Again, the fact is that the only contact on the defender is with the ball.

Clear on that now?

No, I'm not clear why you brought up the face.

Is there a rule that says "A player shall not contact an opponent with his FACE unless such such contact by his FACE is only with his opponent's hand while it is on the ball and is incidental in an attempt to play the ball."

[Jurassic Referee]

Originally Posted by just another ref

No, I'm not clear why you brought up the face.

I brought it up because you brought up physical contact by a defender on a player's hand. I'm still trying to figure out whatinthehell that has got to do with a player holding the ball hitting a defender with the ball without making physical contact at the same time. Maybe you can explain that sometime.

Unless you can cite some rules, JAR, I'm done. I'm tired of repeating myself and citing the same rules. I'll just file this one in JarLand. It can keep the non-existent blarges company.

[just another ref]

Originally Posted by Jurassic Referee

I brought it up because you brought up physical contact by a defender on a player's hand. I'm still trying to figure out whatinthehell that has got to do with a player holding the ball hitting a defender with the ball without making physical contact at the same time. Maybe you can explain that sometime.

Unless you can cite some rules, JAR, I'm done. I'm tired of repeating myself and citing the same rules. I'll just file this one in JarLand. It can keep the non-existent blarges company.

If we have a double whistle on the above play, you call a T, and I call a PC, must we report both?

[Adam]

jar, let me ask this:
A1 tries to make a pass, but B1 gets his hand on the ball. A1's hand slips off, leaving B1 with the ball. The force being applied leads B1 to keep pushing against the ball, which is now pinned against A1's hip, knocking A1 to the floor.

PC foul?

[just another ref]

Originally Posted by Snaqwells

jar, let me ask this:
A1 tries to make a pass, but B1 gets his hand on the ball. A1's hand slips off, leaving B1 with the ball. The force being applied leads B1 to keep pushing against the ball, which is now pinned against A1's hip, knocking A1 to the floor.

PC foul?

I don't see it as a foul at all. Sounds like contact incidental to a legitimate play on the ball.

[Adam]

Originally Posted by just another ref

I don't see it as a foul at all. Sounds like contact incidental to a legitimate play on the ball.

I happen to agree, but I'm not quite at my point yet.

Yet, what if B1 had slipped off the ball and pushed A1 to the floor due to the force and momentum from his play on the ball?

[BillyMac]

Originally Posted by Snaqwells

What if B1 had slipped off the ball and pushed A1 to the floor due to the force and momentum from his play on the ball?

Show me the videotape. Then I'll rule.

[just another ref]

Originally Posted by Snaqwells

I happen to agree, but I'm not quite at my point yet.

Yet, what if B1 had slipped off the ball and pushed A1 to the floor due to the force and momentum from his play on the ball?

I see your point, but I see this whole situation as totally different. If A1 originally has the ball, and B1 makes any play contacting only the ball, and in the process spikes A1 to the floor, I don't see a foul. If A1 has the ball, and uses it to deliberately contact the opponent, I see the ball as an extension of the hands and the result of the contact should be treated as such.