get together, figure out which happened first. If the TO happened first, offense keeps it. If the held ball (not the whistle, but the held ball) happened before the TO (request, not whistle), then go AP. You can assume the requesting coach doesn't want the TO, but I ask him anyway.

Maybe this is putting the cart before the horse, but here's a thought...

The only time we honor a time-out request from the team who would not be in-bounding the ball after that time out, is when the ball is dead.

On a potential held ball situation (A1 and B2 gripping the ball simultaneously), the ball is not dead. If you honor the time-out request on a live ball, you're saying that team has player control (one exception notwithstanding). So, if you honor a time-out request from either side during a tie-up, you're saying that both players have player control, and the team that calls time out first would get the in-bounds after the time-out.

For this reason, I agree with BBR. I don't believe you can give Team B an opportunity to call time-out until they earn control, solely. (Is there such a thing as dual control?) I don't think you can honor team A's request during a tie-up, either. My knee-jerk reaction is to ignore any requests, and call the held ball.

(The aforementioned exception is when you mistakenly whistle a time-out when that team didn't have player control. In that case, you have to grant it, anyway.)

This is where I disagree. I think the rule IS talking about player control....that it is lost when another player also has their hands on the ball.

So since there is only 1 ball only 1 team can have PC/TC.
So when B1 grabs the ball can one correctly argue that the ball is no longer in play and as such is really a dead ball ie free for any team to get control off? (and if they can't a jump ball etc etc)

If this thinking is correct (idea based on discussion above) no coach should be able to ask for a TO.

Do you even know what a dead ball is?
Your thinking is not correct.

I hit the enter key after using the words "dead ball". Thanks for correcting me
So if no PC or TC the ball is in play and belongs to no one. Thus NO TO can be called. What is wrong with that?

There is team control still, as nothing has happened to end it. The only time you'll have a live ball on the court with no team control is during and following either a try or a throw in.

If a coach requests a TO during the time I'm trying to decide if I should call a held ball, it's still a held ball.

IMO...Snaq's put it in a nutshell.

I just can't see rules support for granting a TO when two players BOTH have possesion of the ball...(as Camron stated)

IOW...are we "rewarding" the team in control for requesting a TO before we put air in the whistle for a held ball? (BBR's view?)

Quibble: I think you forgot one. ;)

Easy to do since the advent of the AP.

Yep, and I hereby sentence myself to penance.

50 tosses at the center circle for you.

I honestly don't know how you can think that when the rule clearly says "have their hands so firmly on the ball that control cannot be obtained without undue roughness." Seems to me it's obviously talking about control of the ball.

But if you think so, then please cite the rule that says so. I've looked at 4-12 until I'm blue in the face and I can't find a thing that supports that.

If both players are holding the ball, then we have a held ball and we need to blow the whistle.

We're not rewarding anything. We're awarding a timeout to the team that has possession of the ball. Coaches call timeouts to avoid a held ball, clodely guarded sitch, BC violation, etc. all the time. This is no different.

Play:

A1 has the ball and B1 attempts to grab it. Obviously, there's going to be a held ball. The trail blows the whistle as Coach A has requested a timeout. A second later, the lead blows his whistle for a held ball.

Are you guys honestly going to tell me that you're going to ignore the first whistle and go with the second whistle?

I have a difficult time believing anyone would answer yes to that question.

No, we're awarding a timeout to the team that has possession of the ball.

Play:

A1 has the ball and B1 attempts to grab it. Obviously, there's going to be a held ball. The trail blows the whistle as Coach A has requested a timeout. A second later, the lead blows his whistle for a held ball.

Are you guys honestly going to tell me that you're going to ignore the first whistle and go with the second whistle?

I have a difficult time believing anyone would answer yes to that question.[/QUOTE]

+1

Agreed.

:confused: Why? If you haven't called a held ball, it's by default, still PC/TC of the person who had it. To me, this is simple. Grant TO for original team in control up until the point you deem it a held ball. If you deem it a held ball prior to hearing the TO request, then call the held ball. That's the 2 choices here. Either it was a held ball before the TO request (held ball) or the TO was prior to the held ball (grant TO).