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Thu Oct 10, 2002, 10:30am
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Clarification on Kick Rule
I am looking for clarification on the kick rule. I understand that an intentional use of the leg to block a pass is a kick. The question is, if a defender raises both his arm and leg, and the passed ball first hits the hand, then hits the lower leg, is it ruled a violation due to kick, or a legitimate steal due to it hitting the hand first?
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