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Clarification on Kick Rule
I am looking for clarification on the kick rule. I understand that an intentional use of the leg to block a pass is a kick. The question is, if a defender raises both his arm and leg, and the passed ball first hits the hand, then hits the lower leg, is it ruled a violation due to kick, or a legitimate steal due to it hitting the hand first?
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Rut's answer is correct. If the ball hits the arm and then bounces off the defender's leg accidentally, no violation. If the ball hits the arm and the defender then intentionally strikes the ball with his/her leg, you have a violation. As the official, you have to judge if it was intentional or not.
You noted the "lower leg" in your last sentence which is another good point. If it hits the defenders leg above the knee, it would not be a violation regardless of whether or not it was intentional. Z |
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The leg was definitely raised intentionally to block the pass. The arm and leg were raised in unison, the pass first hit the hand, deflected slightly downward and then hit the lower leg. It sounds like from your response this should indeed by a violation.
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Just guessing here, that after the ball was deflected by the hand, the player did not, then, intentionally kick it. mick |
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