Quote:
Originally posted by Howard Kogan
I am looking for clarification on the kick rule. I understand that an intentional use of the leg to block a pass is a kick. The question is, if a defender raises both his arm and leg, and the passed ball first hits the hand, then hits the lower leg, is it ruled a violation due to kick, or a legitimate steal due to it hitting the hand first?
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You have to determine whether it was intentional or apart of another movement. And intentional kick has nothing to do with what it hits first. If a player intentionally kicks the ball it is a violation, that simple. The play you described does not give the player the right to kick the call on purpose. But you have to make that determination when it happens.
Peace