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  #16 (permalink)  
Old Fri Oct 15, 2010, 08:14pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by bob jenkins View Post
How did the (non-intnetional, non-flagrant) contact by B2 prevent A2 from "performing normal offensive or defensive maneuvers?" Since there was a foul on A1, then it *likely* didn't, and thus, wasn't a foul.

While the official should observe the contact, and note it, s/he should also see the rest of the play to determine if the contact was a foul. Sometimes, it might be. And, even when it isn't, it can be addressed during the administration of the foul on A1.
Fair enough. I am obviously working under the assumption that a foul occurred. In my mind, the offensive maneuver that I see A2 likely being fouled on in this play is during an attempt to get into position for an offensive rebound and getting held, pushed, etc., by B2 in the process. Even though we have a foul on B1, is this a situation that you would pass on bob?
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  #17 (permalink)  
Old Fri Oct 15, 2010, 08:40pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by AustinRef View Post
Even though we have a foul on B1, is this a situation that you would pass on bob?
If we have a foul, I'll call it.

If we have contact that "prevents" a rebound, when there isn't any rebound to "prevent" then I'm more likely to pass.
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