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Old Wed Jul 14, 2010, 05:42pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Jurassic Referee View Post
Can you cite a rule that backs up your statement that the above is a legal play? I've cited several that say that it isn't.

1) A1 ENDED the dribble. After ENDING the dribble, A1 now either has a pivot foot or he has two feet on the floor with neither being a pivot foot.
Not true.

4-44-2b: If one foot is on the floor, it is the pivot when the other foot touches in a step.

My understanding is that this never happened in the play at hand.
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