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ranjo Mon Feb 15, 2010 10:53am

Quote:

Originally Posted by Welpe (Post 661818)
Are all elements necessary to grant a time-out present?

No player control - Good Point!

jdw3018 Mon Feb 15, 2010 10:54am

Quote:

Originally Posted by DLH17 (Post 661834)
After re-reading the rule, it appears he was not in violation because the ball wasn't allowed to hit his foot after fumbling the ball.

Good learning experience. Helps to discuss.

Actually, it has nothing to do with it hitting his foot. It has to do with whether the free thrower would have to leave the free throw semi-circle to retrieve the ball. If he can't retrieve the ball, it is a violation.

DLH17 Mon Feb 15, 2010 10:58am

Quote:

Originally Posted by jdw3018 (Post 661837)
Actually, it has nothing to do with it hitting his foot. It has to do with whether the free thrower would have to leave the free throw semi-circle to retrieve the ball. If he can't retrieve the ball, it is a violation.

I don't read anything in the rule posted that indicates the "retrieving the ball" is the cause of the violation. It may well be, however, it is not stated.

"Allowing the ball to deflect of his/her foot into the lane" is the verbiage.

I suppose common sense would help infer the shooter would have to step over the FT line in order to retrieve, and thus, commit a violation. But, it's not explicitly stated in 9.1.1. as posted.

Scratch85 Mon Feb 15, 2010 11:01am

Quote:

Originally Posted by DLH17 (Post 661839)
I don't read anything in the rule posted that indicates the "retrieving the ball" is the cause of the violation. It may well be, however, it is not stated.

"Allowing the ball to deflect of his/her foot into the lane" is the verbiage.

I suppose common sense would help infer the shooter would have to step over the FT line in order to retrieve, and thus, commit a violation. But, it's not explicitly stated in 9.1.1. as posted.

IMO, what is explicitly stated is that a violation in 9-1-3(a) or (e) has occurred.

edited: Hitting the foot is not the violation.

jdw3018 Mon Feb 15, 2010 11:08am

Quote:

Originally Posted by DLH17 (Post 661839)
I don't read anything in the rule posted that indicates the "retrieving the ball" is the cause of the violation. It may well be, however, it is not stated.

"Allowing the ball to deflect of his/her foot into the lane" is the verbiage.

I suppose common sense would help infer the shooter would have to step over the FT line in order to retrieve, and thus, commit a violation. But, it's not explicitly stated in 9.1.1. as posted.

The key is to not just read the case play, but rather to read both the case play and the rule to which it references, allowing you to read the case play in the context of the rule.

There is no rule indicating that the ball hitting any part of the body is illegal.

DLH17 Mon Feb 15, 2010 11:14am

Thanks for the convo. Good stuff.

Rich Mon Feb 15, 2010 11:16am

Quote:

Originally Posted by jdw3018 (Post 661837)
actually, it has nothing to do with it hitting his foot. It has to do with whether the free thrower would have to leave the free throw semi-circle to retrieve the ball. If he can't retrieve the ball, it is a violation.

+1

Adam Mon Feb 15, 2010 12:57pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by richmsn (Post 661850)
+1

+1

Camron Rust Mon Feb 15, 2010 01:21pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by ranjo (Post 661836)
No player control - Good Point!

Ah, but it is it at their disposal?


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