Advantage/Disadvantage

[26 Year Gap]

Originally Posted by Mark Padgett

Coach: "Why didn't you call a foul on that shot at the horn? He got hammered."

Me: "It's the advantage/disadvantage principle, coach. If I called a foul, the free throws might have sent the game into overtime and that's to my disadvantage."

Why do I think this exchange has already happened?

[bellnier]

So displacement doesn't necessarily mean change in advantage/disadvantage? I saw this last night at Canisius-Iona game. A1 inbounds to A2. B bumps A2 displacing him by 1 step. B throws his arms out in the "I didn't mean it" gesture and retreats to front court. No pressure then on A1 or A2. A displacement for sure...and it COULD have forced A2 to walk, and it COULD have resulted in a 10 second violation, but neither happened. No call by ref...is this the right thing? Thanks.

BTW, as a sometimes guilt-ridden former coach I have sympathy for you all, most of the time (well, some of the time)...I sat behind the visiting bench and the coach chirped all night, he had a ***** on every single opposition possession...sheesh that was irritating and more than a little distracting.

[bob jenkins]

Originally Posted by bellnier

So displacement doesn't necessarily mean change in advantage/disadvantage? I saw this last night at Canisius-Iona game. A1 inbounds to A2. B bumps A2 displacing him by 1 step. B throws his arms out in the "I didn't mean it" gesture and retreats to front court. No pressure then on A1 or A2. A displacement for sure...and it COULD have forced A2 to walk, and it COULD have resulted in a 10 second violation, but neither happened. No call by ref...is this the right thing?

Seems right to me. Causing the non-pivot foot to move on such a throw-in doesn't prevent A2 from "normal offensive maneuvers."

IF it had caused a travel, then a fould would (or should) have been called. If the bump was because of continuing pressure, or stopped a pass, etc., the a foul would (or should) have been called.